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ByBissi123
Hello everyone, I'm a little confused. Why do point-symmetric polynomials about the origin have an inflection point exactly at the origin? And why do polynomials symmetric to the Y-axis have an extreme point on the Y-axis? What is the reason for this? Thank you in advance!
Set values close to or behind the definition gaps and thus determine the sign.
If you come from the left direction x=1, you are e.g. at x=0.99, then the counter is positive, and both clamps in the denominator yield negative values, i.e. their multiplication likewise yields a positive value, so that the complete break is positive, i.e., the direction ∞.
Coming from the right, for example at x=1.01, the counter is again positive, but in the denominator the first clamp is now positive, with a negative second clamp, i.e. the denominator is negative, and thus (because of the positive counter) the break is negative, i.e. it goes from the right direction x=1 direction −∞.
DANKEE
By determining the sign for this area to the left or right of the definition gap.