Why was “IIII” replaced by “IV” in the Middle Ages?
(2 votes)
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I would like to doubt whether this was replaced in the Middle Ages. The fact that the Roman numerical system has developed is very plausible. With IIII, you have to look closely for many seconds to reliably distinguish it from III, and it does not work out from larger distances. There are certain crowds of monuments to prove to you that the ancient Romans used before Christ’s birth IV (4), IX (9) etc. Anyone who has introduced this systemic system, because it is burst because of the frequent faults of the collar, should be known, even if I don’t know.
the IV was not replaced but written as IIII for certain reasons
In the Roman counting system there were not IIII, but there was iV for 4, V = 5 and Vi = 6 after nomenclature.
Hello
That has always been because more economists. For the IIII, the stone chip needs about 25% more working time than for the IV of the writers 25% more ink
Nö, 33%! For 4 lines instead of 3 gives 4/3=1.33 !
Just look into the German wiki under Roman number,
very interesting and detailed.
you look here
IIII instead of IV: The spelling has a long tradition!
.
IV could be confused with JU = Jupiter to a God
What are you talking about?
IV is simply a Roman 4.
Right,
interesting what I researched
If it is not possible to show the 4 as IIII on some digit sheets
Really? I have to pay attention!
IV is the Roman 4