ByDascha71
We all know these tenses from German, but why does the future perfect tense (e.g., "I will have eaten") come before the future perfect tense (e.g., "I will eat")? If you had a fictional timeline and identified a point in the future where you would eat, you would first eat and then have eaten, or am I misunderstanding something?
(2 votes)
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colloquial or grammatical
Futur II lies ahead of the futur I
To use your examples: “I will have eaten” and “I will eat” the following example:
I will Today probably all muesli stocks have you eaten?, tomorrow I am Bread Eat.
Example: Your train is late. When she comes, we’ll have eaten.
That it arrives in the future, our food before it, that is, in the forward future.
It’s about two different actions, not that we will eat and then have eaten.
That’s not true either. Where did you see that?
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