If your period is missed – which cycle phase follows?
So guys, I've had my period for 10 years and up until now it has come EVERY month and always on time (deviations of 2-3 days are very rare). I had mild whiplash 3 weeks ago which completely threw me off track (2 weeks of dizzy spells, first migraine, panic attacks, extreme tiredness and much more). Now, thank goodness, that's all over, but I've been waiting for my period for a week now (I don't even have PMS and I always have that too, like sore breasts and slight cramping in my lower stomach). I assume that the stress I've had in the last few weeks is the reason for it all. At first I thought I might be pregnant, but I've tested twice now and both times have been clearly negative. My question now (since I've never had a missed period before): what phase of the cycle are you in then? Are you then in the PMS phase, i.e. the luteal phase, the whole time until the NEXT period starts, or is the period phase skipped and you then have the follicular phase, ovulation, etc. again?
This depends on why your period will remain. The most likely thing is that you simply didn’t have an ovulation in this cycle… something can happen. The hormonal system reacts very sensitively to stress, and you’ve had enough.
In this case, you are still in the cycle phase between menstruation and ovulation, until you have an ovulation again (of course you cannot calculate).
If your period expires three times in a row, a visit to the female doctor would be advisable (if you can safely exclude pregnancy… if not, you should go as soon as possible). You can wait so long. In most cases, the cycle reappears itself.
Thank you! I have just read that it is possible to recognize on the basis of the cervix gland in which cycle phase one is currently. During the ovulation this slime is very creamy and liquid and I had exactly this one and a half weeks ago! That was really a lot of mucus. So I can actually be sure that the ovulation took place 🧐
The can indicate an ovulation, but it does not necessarily have to. The consistency of the cervix mucus is noticeable only in connection with the basal temperature and the state of the mother’s mouth in relation to the ovulation.
Years of change (climate).
Would be a possibility.
I am 22 sorry forget to mention
Very good question. According to my understanding, the ovulation would have to have failed and the associated hormonal fluctuations that the PMS accordingly also explain.