Warum hat Russland Amerika nicht vor den Spaniern entdeckt?

Russland ist geographisch eigentlich viel näher an Amerika. Lag das daran, dass die Verbindung zu Alaska so lebensunfreundlich war (kalt, nur Eis und Schnee)?

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SombreroNegro
1 year ago

The Russians were America in 1492 when Colón discovered the new world, not the closest.

The Russians lived at that time about 5000 km from America, Siberia was barely colonized by them. They should have crossed the Arctic Ocean from their then area, up to 20. century was technologically impossible. If they had crossed Siberia, they should have traveled more than 6500 km to reach Alaska.

LiebeZuBuecher
1 year ago
Reply to  SombreroNegro

Así se

Kuhlmann26
1 year ago

Maybe they have that? Better said, the Russian ancestors. The East of today’s Russia was not always Russian.

The fact is that the Spaniards were not the first to discover the American continent (but you did not claim that).

Greeting Matti

mulan
1 year ago

At the time of the discovery of America there was no Canada and no America. And Russia had not yet expanded in today’s borders. It was about half that big. https://lehrerfortbildung-bw.de/u_gewi/geschichte/gym/bp2016/fb8/3_kl10/05_bsp1/0_zarenreich/305_01_hour design_structural features_des_zarenreichs_-_russland_als_imperium.pdf

Jespa666
1 year ago
  • Because Russia has only existed since 1547, before it was the Great Princedom of Moscow.
  • Because in 1492 the Mongols still prevented the eastwards
  • At the time Russia was significantly smaller, the Asian Pacific Coast was only in the 17th century colonized
zetra
1 year ago

Because Siberia has not even been organized and there were only some forest runners/jaegers.

But China has been on, and the history of America could have been different if its sailors were to have gone a bit further.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7XRlZErHwpM

mineralixx
1 year ago
Reply to  zetra

The “old” Chinese were never a seafaring people but always strongly land-related – unlike the Polynesians, Portuguese or Dutch. The Chinese trade in Europe did not involve Chinese, but Europeans (e.g. East India Compagnie).

carminita
1 year ago

The Behringstraße was 10,000 years ago accessible. The Indians came from Asia to America. There was no Russia yet.

The Behringstraße, which is located on the other side of Siberia, was discovered in the service of Russia in 1728. America 1492.

carminita
1 year ago
Reply to  brotherhood485

Right. Indigens could also be said. Indios/Indians/Indigenes because the Spaniards were looking for a maritime route to India and initially thought they would have landed there and not on a previously undetected continent.

PachamamaSquaw
1 year ago
Reply to  carminita

America 1492.

No, America wasn’t by Columbus

discovered and not only 1492.

It’s been refuted.

Columbus, or The Spaniards

not the explorers of America,

but the Vikings! 🥳

carminita
1 year ago
Reply to  PachamamaSquaw

No one says. The fact that Newfoundland was somewhere in the north also came to Columbus. It was only assumed that there were many islands on the way to India. Columbus has discovered America for the Western world.

But just read the question: it was about Russia vs. Spain (1492). Not about when someone was there before and kept it secret. In front of the Vikings there were the Indios themselves and even from Africa there were rumours that some would have succeeded. In 1492, however, the ships were so far to survive a return journey.

carminita
1 year ago

As I said, no one claims that Columbus had discovered America as the first. But Columbus has discovered America for the Western Christian world.

PachamamaSquaw
1 year ago

Columbus has not discovered America, i.e. the Spaniards have America not discovered.

However, the Spaniards have murdered millions of indigenous people, slaughtered, 🔪🩸slaved, 😫 raped, 🤮💀infected with diseases, ️usw….+ stolen them in their money-and-gold greed tons of gold!

Btw:
About the Beringstraße no “Indios”.
And the natives of America are called Native Americans.

mulan
1 year ago

Please read before lustful.

PachamamaSquaw
1 year ago

Columbus hasn’t discovered America.

earnest
1 year ago

Are you going to be silly?

I’ll give you the last word.

carminita
1 year ago

Are you writing to yourself now?

earnest
1 year ago

Is anybody getting bad?

carminita
1 year ago

Now you got a glass too much…

earnest
1 year ago

And please greet the Proto-Indios from me!

carminita
1 year ago

Igualmente and we’ll see you in your answer… No

earnest
1 year ago

Muak back, carminita.

And a nice evening.

carminita
1 year ago

Muak. Then just don’t write further under my Answer

earnest
1 year ago

But “adiós” you understood now.

You’re welcome.

carminita
1 year ago

Of course, the “Indios” were there earlier – as described. Like the Iberians in front of Hispanos. That’s it. But what you do not understand is that the indigenous peoples still understand themselves as Indians (and Hispanos and Latinos). It’s the part that unites them. Before, Mayas and Aztecs and the rest were in war.

Adiós

earnest
1 year ago

Good, very objective:

You seem to have mine Comment not quite understood.

Adiós.

carminita
1 year ago

Good, objective: Historical accuracy is that Columbus and Spain assumed to be landed in India. About the Westweg. Therefore, that part that was obviously not the old India that was reachable over the East was called Western India, both India “Las Indias”, the inhabitants of Indios. From that point of view. Historically correct, only geographically wrong (from Columbus and Spain). It turned out later that it was an undiscovered continent.

The name India is a fact that you can read on today’s maps: West Inidian Islands (largely for the Caribbean) or, for example, Cartagena de Las Indias (Colombia).

earnest
1 year ago

Now in the earnest: The term “indio” is not “political incorrect, but historically.

Your “Indios” came to “America” before the Spaniards found the term “Indios”.

This is not about “political correctness”, but about historical accuracy.

Howgh! The little chief spoke.

😉

carminita
1 year ago

Now in the Earnest. One thing is the practice in the USA, another in Spanish-speaking countries. There negro and indio is not regarded as a snippet.

Racism is in the eye of the viewer. What about black or (west) Indian bad?

earnest
1 year ago

You seem like you didn’t understand the comment so well, but you’ll be kiebig.

PS: Bering road

carminita
1 year ago

Negros and indios are general Spanish words. This is about the view of the Spaniards from 1492, who were supposed to have arrived in West India.

EyeQatcher
1 year ago

N…r also call themselves N…r or Ni.er;

therefore they do not want to be referred to by others for a long time.

The same applies to indios.

carminita
1 year ago

Oh, this is the big chief? Many indigenous peoples call themselves so if they want to highlight the common nature of the peoples. As far as you know the exact tribe or the empire, you can be differentiated.

mulan
1 year ago

And if the first “Indios” from northeastern Asia were overset, one should not speak of “Indios” because they were a modern foreign name of the Spaniards with regard to those islanders who considered them Indians.

ThomasJNewton
1 year ago

It doesn’t matter where Russia is, but where “Russia” was then.
3000 km can be covered on sea more easily than on mainland, which is sometimes ice-cold, sometimes blunt and sometimes difficult to fit for other reasons.

Babsi2697
1 year ago

That’s the wind system.

The Russians would never have arrived through side winds and ice floes.

The Spaniards had flow and backwind.

UbuRoi
1 year ago
Reply to  Babsi2697

Did the Spaniards come back?

Machtnix53
1 year ago

When the Siberian peoples discovered and colonized America, there was no Russia. They were then called to the American natives, then Indians from the bleach faces.

JayCeD
1 year ago

Because Russia was not yet expanding to the east.

Ramon6134
1 year ago

Russia had to seize Siberia first

PachamamaSquaw
1 year ago

Hello brotherhood, 👋

the Spaniards have America

NOT discovered,

but the Vikings. 🥳

LG 🙋🏻

newcomer
1 year ago

Russia is large area saying they never had the need to take new countries at that time

mulan
1 year ago
Reply to  newcomer

That’s not true. There have always been conquests.

mulan
1 year ago
Reply to  mulan

https://lehrerfortbildung-bw.de/u_gewi/geschichte/gym/bp2016/fb8/3_kl10/05_bsp1/0_zarenreich/305_01_hour design_structural features_des_zarenreichs_-_russland_als_imperium.pdf

EyeQatcher
1 year ago
Reply to  newcomer

They still have a large area today and yet the obvious need to conquer other countries 😕

Otilie1
1 year ago

They may have thought the earth is a pane and have been afraid to fall back on the ocean ,-))))))))))

DerHans
1 year ago

Russian expansion only started later. East Siberia not Russian, but at most dominated by the Chinese and Mongolians.

And California could have actually become Russian.