Verkauf eines möglichen Unfallwagens/Rechtslage bei KFZ-Kaufvertrag?
Hallo,
Ich habe ein KFZ verkauft. Ich bin mir nicht sicher, ob er vor 10 Jahren eventuell mal einen Unfall gehabt haben könnte.
Damals beim Kauf des KFZ stand im Kaufvertrag, welchen der Vorbesitzer geschrieben hatte: „Das Fahrzeug hatte in meinem Besitz keinen Unfall. Vorschäden können nicht ausgeschlossen werden.“
Ich habe das Fahrzeug verkauft und in den Kaufvertrag geschrieben: „Das Fahrzeug wurde vom Vorbesitzer unfallfrei gekauft und wird so verkauft.“
Stimmt dieser Satz so? Oder hätte ich schreiben müssen, das Fahrzeug war im Besitz des Vorbesitzers unfallfrei und wird so verkauft.
(1 votes)
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wording back or forth (you have badly formulated it!)
If you haven’t noticed for 10 years that this could be an accident car, how should the new owner suddenly come to the fact that it’s an accident car?
Maybe.
And if that happens, of course, you’re standing for it. Or not?
You could have just left the car and then headed to the junk dealer.
Why did you even sell it?
Preliminary damage from the previous owner does not concern you. You sell the car in your possession as an accident free. Ready.
jo can be done like this, I wrote
“The vehicle did not have an accident in my possession, and according to previous owners, damages cannot be excluded. ‘
and good
from this: you get the purchase contract from ADAC and note their notes
Yes, unfortunately, it’s over.
yes, then you know for the next time, and you have written, in your possession without an accident, which is before, you cannot know and the seller could have let the check
from me, too. then should be out of the tailor
No, that’s what the then seller wrote. I wrote: The vehicle was bought by the previous owner in an accident-free manner and is sold in this way.
The answer to the question you give yourself 🙂
Directly following:
How does it look now? Can the vehicle be returned?
You should have just written that damage cannot be excluded.
I’m out.
I think the sentence is so fine, as he clearly expresses what you want to express. However, the pre-owner’s sentence is even better and constitutes a legal standard formulation.
Okay, so the wording of me goes through like that or is it a gray zone?
I’m not a lawyer, but I’d say the sentence goes i.O.
If there were accidental damage, you would have noticed that in 10 years.
And you can’t prove anything you don’t know.