Stylistic devices in Medea?

I do not think that this is something different in the original:

οὔκουν χρῆν σ’ ὁμοιοῦσθαι κακοῖς,

οὐδ’ ἀντιτείν νήπι’ ἀντὶ νηπίων

oũkoun chrẽn s’ homoioũsthai kakoĩs
oud’ antiteínein nḗpi’ antì nēpíōn

And surely it was not necessary that you made it equal to evil.

and to the (=my) misunderstood the (=deine) ununderstood.

That sounds quite different than what you quoted. Where did your quote come from?