What the hell does that mean? Can someone explain to me why there are double conjugations here and what I need to keep in mind? Are there differences in meaning/usage (for both the present indicative and subjunctive tenses), or what are they, and where do they come from?
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I don't understand what's wrong with point 4
This year's Serbian entry proved that it's possible to add subtitles. But why don't all countries with non-English songs do this?
So which subject areas
Good day. I haven't been to school a lot lately. But I always had reasons, and those days were excused. About two years ago, I had panic attacks and couldn't go to school because they were too severe. And the teacher was the only one who really took it seriously, because her sister had the…
The conjugation of erguir is yergo, yergues, yergue …
There is another one that is given here oddly at 1st place, but is hardly common, although correct. Sometimes, outdated forms just survive the time.
But the official conjugation of erguir is lt. current grammar of RAE (conjugation model 33) with y at regular death.
But you can use both? And that without difference?
If you want to sound like an asshole, yes.
irguierone
As I said, this is displayed correctly on Leo. I can’t see these double personnel who you report.
No, irguió, irguiren and irguiéndo are lt. RAE current and correct. There is no palatization there, because this part is not stressed either.
I added. So it’s a mistake, isn’t it?
I can’t see the mistake with the double personnel pronouns on Leo. In the imperative, yerguete, yergase … is displayed there.
And what are these strange imperative forms on LEO (yerguetete, yergasese, yergansese) with double “te” and “se” as endings? Where does that come from or is that a mistake?
One more thing: The Indefinido of -ir Verben refers in the 3rd people to regular changes in the present. Accordingly, the indifinido (irguió, irguieron) indicated at LEO and the Gerundio, which is formed according to the same rules (irguiéndo), derives from the outdated form. Does that mean that they are also obsolete and you have to use them derived from “y” form?
Thanks for the help.
Of course, as I said, it may also be possible to use the form with i in the case of regular concrete if this is desired. But it would be raro raro in modern everyday life. But if it’s mystical, that’s the style.
Okay. It’s just that I’m both learning about falling like in my book where it might sound a bit medieval. There was something like that with the replacement of the Pluscuamperfecto by the -ra form of the Imperfecto de Subjuntivo.
Here you have a nice discussion about it, below also a post in English:
https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/erguir-conjugaci%C3%B3n.101261/
Maybe it will help you.
Un consejo muy bien 😜. Pero aun así: Sabe alguien como funciona?
Yeah, I read too. 😁
😊
You’re right. Bien’s an adverb.
Look at your grammar. 😊
Would be surprised if it were different.
I’m not sure.
Are you sure it is Uncommon beans is it?
In Italian it is molto buonoNot molto envy– ?