Pregnant by first unprotected and then after using a condom?
Hey, please don't judge me. I know you can get pregnant without protection, of course. That would definitely be fine with me. My partner actually wants to wait a bit longer, but he's of the opinion that pre-cum can only lead to pregnancy if he ejaculates beforehand. My partner and I had unprotected sex two days before ovulation (determined by ovulation tests), and then used a condom (it took about another 15 minutes before he came).
How likely is it that a pregnancy could be missed?
(1 votes)
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As for the lust drop, I recently read a report, there was a study, and either the man always had sperm in the lust drop, or never, so it doesn’t seem like one always thought to hang together with whether the man had a sperm just before.
No one can know how many fertilizing sperms are in your partner’s lust.
Because it’s not a drama for you, just wait your next period. (and do not wonder, this can be postponed solely by expecting to be pregnant)
So you had unprotected intercourse just before the ovulation. This is a clear attempt to get pregnant.
In the lust drop, sperm can be. These are few, but it can be enough. I don’t know if the probability is now 2% or 22%. Even with sperm, it is not 100%.
Sperm can be in the lust. He’s right that the likelihood of it is higher if he had a sperm before, but it’s not entirely excluded. I still think the probability is rather low.
The argument with the lust drop is a dangerous game and if you have (woman) bad luck, it’s a hit. Either you can reasonably prevent condoms, pills or whatever, or you always have to count on having a hit, wanting or even unintentional.
Probability calculations will not bring you further. The likelihood is greater than zero and you should make a test in 19 days.
Basically, your partner is right. The so-called “Lust Drop” is not formed in the testicle and therefore cannot contain a sperm. Unless you had a sperm before. Since the man gets everything through the urine, there should be no problem if one had urinated several times after the last sperm. But a residual risk remains natural. Unless your partner had no sperm for weeks. In principle, 1 sperm is enough to become pregnant. Therefore, it is of course useful to use a condom before ovulation.
In my borrowing assessment, the risk of pregnancy is actually not particularly increased, after all, even in good conditions per cycle, there is only a 30% chance of pregnancy and with a minimum number of sperms the probability will be very low. But of course I’m not a psychic.