Is that correct German: I then said…?
I >have< told him >had< that….
Or
I >had< told her the situation, that….
So, this "haben" and "habt" twice in one sentence. I hear or read that often. Is that actually correct, or can you say it like that?
I >have< told him >had< that….
Or
I >had< told her the situation, that….
So, this "haben" and "habt" twice in one sentence. I hear or read that often. Is that actually correct, or can you say it like that?
Hey everyone!!☆ I want to teach myself Spanish for many reasons… I just think it's better to learn at home than in some class where you can't keep up 🙂 Now I don't know how to begin… where do you start with the vocabulary? Do you learn colors first, like in English? Or do you…
Hallo, ich stelle diese Frage, weil im englischsprachigen Raum gerne Gedichte und Erzählungen geschrieben wurden. Und mit „Schöne“ Krankheit meine ich, dass die blasse Haut und blutige Lippen (sowie man Schneewittchen beschreiben würde) und der langsame Tod als attraktiv angesehen wurde in der Zeit. Zum Glück sind wir in einer Zeit, wo diese Krankheit behandelbar…
I speak English and Russian quite well (apart from German, of course)
1. This task is stressful for me. 2. The device is fully loaded
In the Ruhr area this is also often used, as was “I had been eating in the restaurant”.
That’s Slang. It’s probably supposed to be eloquent. You want to show how to juggle with verbs.
Thanks for the star 🌟
For me the double perfect is not a correct German. It sounds terrible, at least when it is used as a substitute for the plush fect. And so some people use it all the time; they don’t seem to know a plush fect at all.
But read what the Duden says. In certain cases, it considers this form quite useful.
It’s strange that I’ve spent my whole life without this form and never missed it or comparable.
Here in Bavaria, the double perfect is relatively common – also and especially as a PQP replacement. This is probably due mainly to the fact that there is no preteriority (more). And for the formation of the PQP, an auxiliary verb in the preterior…
Thank you for this announcement. Most Germans would probably have to face the double perfect as a mistake if they really mean “standard German”.
There is no preteriority in Switzerland’s alemannic dialects (I was, I had, I left) and therefore necessarily no “Plusquamperfekt”. In Swiss German it is therefore quite correct to say:
“I hate you that the esoo nüd gaat” (I already told you that this is not possible)
I think the FS speaks of double perfection in German standard. I don’t think he/she is Bairisch.😉
So “…who had said.” only goes at the end of the sentence.
Otherwise it means “…say that…”
One Situation says you do not – that is false verb!
A situation you can description or Explanation.
This is language-by-pass and, above all, in the south-German space, constantly to be heard across all dialect groups. Hannoveraner Hochdeutsch or Written German in the real sense is not, but it already fits: whether right or not, you can say that and everyone will know how it is meant.
Both sentences are wrong (the “behavior” is not pure)
They say either
I told him (perfect) or
I had told him (Plusquamperfekt)
“Hatte” would be correct. This is as good as never used plush fect.
Preteriority would be enough: “I told him that…”
Why is it that way?
“I told him that.”
I told him or I told him. Your proposal would be duplicated.
“Hatte” is correct German, häddix8 ghabd.
…if it goes on after “I had told her”
“but she didn’t want to listen to me.”
What kind of time is that? Double plush fect?