Ist das eine Straftat?
Hallo zusammen!
ich habe kürzlich ein auto von einer Person gekauft das noch unter Leasing war.
Abgemacht mündlich wahr ich überweise ihm das Geld und er bezahlt das offene Leasing so das ich das auto anmelden kann und es mir gehört.
Das Geld habe ich überwiesen und das Auto mitgenommen. Aber er zahlte mit dem überwiesenen Geld das Leasing nicht ab sondern hatte das Geld verspielt.
Kann ich jetz eine Anzeige machen oder ist das Zivilrechtlich?
Danke
(1 votes)
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I don’t think you can sell a leased car. Since you went with it, you owed the co-operative to a fraud.
It’s all right. Maybe you’ll learn something about your future life.
Of course you can and should make a fraud.
Of course, you can sue him successfully. However, the probability is likely to be very high that he is Pleite. After all, you should initiate a judicial dunning procedure to obtain a pledge decision. It is then valid for 30 years, in time can still happen a lot. First of all, you have to write down the money.
Of course, it would be very advantageous to have a shameful contract or at least corresponding witnesses, one would already suffice.
You have “orally” concluded a car purchase agreement? Then you have a problem.
I guess there’s only one man in frack and a cylinder. You learn from stupidity.
Wow, you’re stupid.
NIEMALS but really NIIIEEEEMALS buy a car with a Oral contract and transfer money…
you are in any case.
He can’t sell what he doesn’t own. Now you’ve lost. You’re the Hehler, you know you bought a stolen car. The Hehler is worse than the standby.
Of course you can sell things that don’t belong to you. Why not? And the car wasn’t stolen?! The problem is somewhere else.
The original holder sold something he didn’t own. That’s theft. The buyer bought it even though he knew it was a leasing car. These cars are the property of a leasing company. This gives the facts of the marriage.
We’re fighting over the FS. Is that worth us? By the way, I have to find out that you are well-reported. That alienates me.
Fine. Still no stealing. I give up.
You don’t consider that consistent. Question 1: Does the leasing company still have the car? No. The leasing owner has unlawfully sold it. It’s still there, but not legally effective. On request it is to be released. Even this situation shows everything criminal. I can’t handle it. The fact is he didn’t. Even if the sum was paid, he has no right to the car. To the same yes. The leasing company will strive to get rid of a car. In the contracts, however, it is true that the leasing user does not have the right to acquire his car for leasing. I’m sorry, and I’m talking about experience.
You can producing an explosion by nuclear energy name. That doesn’t make it any better.
There was no car taken away or wasted. Ergo: No theft
If the leasing owner had paid the proceeds well, everything would have been fine. So nix with slap.
This is the legal crunch.
Again. The car he sold might have been admitted to him. That it was/is admitted to him does not say that it belongs to him. It belongs in this case to a society that leases cars. He illegally stole it in which he sold it. This is theft, removal, suppression or how to call it. Go away. I call it theft.
Seufz. Where’s theft? Nothing was taken away here. If I loan you my drilling machine and you sell it then it’s not a theft. If you rent my car/least or the like, and then it’s not a theft. And in this case, even a slap would be questionable.
The buyer is right. He didn’t steal it, he bought stolen goods. He is therefore a Hehler. The alleged seller sold it even though it did not belong to him, but the leasing company. Read everything. That’s what I’ve described several times.
Nice. It’s a lot but not a steal. The car was handed over to him. It can’t be theft anymore. “Whoever takes a strange moving thing away from another one in the intention…” https://dejure.org/gesetze/StGB/242.html
Theft is a criminal offence against foreign property. So he sold a car that didn’t belong to him. Only with the payment of the residual value and the possession of the ZB I + II and the registration as a holder and the purchase contract the car is legally transferred to its property. Before that, he only paid “slips” thus leasing rates which correspond approximately to the loss of value.
No. Theft is something completely different.
You can’t buy a leasing car anyway because it doesn’t belong to the holder.