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ChrisGE1267
1 year ago

Not true – be g(x) = f(x) + c

The following applies:

gauss58
1 year ago

No,

f(x) = 4x + 2 ; f'(x) = 4

g(x) = 4x ; g'(x) = 4

Roderic
1 year ago

No, it’s not.

and

are different but both have the same derivation:

Halbrecht
1 year ago

No, no

This is the reason why one has to write a bold +C when reversing the derivation (integration ).

x3 derive is 3×2…………but back you have to write x3+C because all fts of the form x3+C yield 3×2.

SeifenkistenBOB
1 year ago

Yes, they can. An example:

ajkcdajefiu
1 year ago

if derivatives are meant to a specific point, then not:

  • f(x) = x –> f'(1) = 1
  • g(x) = x**2 –> g'(1) = 1

but if the derivation functions are meant, then not two functions can result in a derivation (i.e. true)

(at least according to my knowledge)

J0T4T4
1 year ago
Reply to  ajkcdajefiu

Your knowledge is wrong:(

ajkcdajefiu
1 year ago
Reply to  J0T4T4

ok