ByDarki362
Hello, the integral of the semicircle is giving me problems. If I use the integral limits as usual, the result is 0, but if I use partial integration, I get pi/2, which is also the area. Why?
(1 votes)
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How does it work?
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…
A = (1 / 2) * (π / 2) – (1 / 2) * (-π / 2) = π / 2
And how do you take the pi/2 and that half?
A = −13.21 √(1 – x2) dx =
(1 / 2) * (√(1 – 12) * 1 + arcsin(1) – (1 / 2) * (√(1 – (-1)2) * (-1) + arcsin(-1)))
Yes thank you
Why partial integration? It is close to trigonometric substitution. If you use the boundaries – 1 and 1 as usual, pi/2 also comes out.
√1-(-1)2-√1-12 = 0 that would be my bill but I do not see my mistake
Oh, you can’t use the limits in the function. It’s a masterpiece! You have to integrate.
You obviously have significant gaps in knowledge, what Integrale are at all. I strongly recommend repeating this again. There are also countless learning videos.
Oh, I would have thought so into the integral then makes sense thank you
To answer my demand:
Main set of Integral Account/Fundamental Set of Analysis:
where: