Did Persia belong to the Ottoman Empire?
Hello to those who also have knowledge of the ancient history of the Ottoman Empire or Persia.
Many words that are in Turkish today are also the same in Persian.
Did Persia once belong to the Ottoman Empire?
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No, Persia (today Iran) never belonged to the Ottoman Empire. The Ottoman Empire and Persia were two separate and independent kingdoms in the history of the Middle East.The Ottomans and the Safawids (later the Kadschars) often ruled during certain periods of history in the neighborhood.
No, but there were several wars between these rival powers.
Persian was the teaching language of the Ottomans, such as Latin in Central Europe.
Parts of Persia (which is understood today as Iraq) went to the Ottoman Empire in 1555 in the peace of Amasya.
The Persia that is identified today with the borders of Iran has never been able to permanently conquer the Ottomans.
Yes, but Turkey has also heard of Persia:)
When was that supposed to have been? You probably mean the kingdom of (Turkish!) Seldzhuken!
Rather to the (ost-)Roman Empire, however, they have fought quite often with the Sassanids (the Persia dominated at the time).
It was called empire of the Persians and not empire of the Turks.
It wasn’t called ‘Reich der Perser’, not ‘Reich der Türken’, but ‘Reich der Seldschuken’!
No, Persia wasn’t part of the Ottoman Empire. It was only partly allied with him.
Allied???? More permanent!
Yeah, right. Ottoman-Safawid War
“Allied” by an occupation or vasal state. Right.
And who, in your opinion, has occupied or made a vasal state?