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Derive the Bonferroni inequality?

Bymathhhhee

Hello, I have a question about the derivation of the Bonferroni inequality: P(⋂k=1to n ​Ak​)≥∑k=1 to n ​P(Ak​)−(n−1) My teacher started by: P(⋂k=1to n ​Ak​) = P(∪k=1 to n​ Ak^c​)^c, but isn't that wrong? Shouldn't this equation be true: P(⋂k=1to n ​Ak​) = P(⋂k=1to n ​Ak​^c)^c because P(A) = P(A^c)^c or am I wrong?

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Halswirbelstrom
Halswirbelstrom
11 months ago

LG H.

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SwaggyLaggy
SwaggyLaggy
11 months ago

Hello,

Draw a parallelogram, the resulting field is the straight line. Now you have to calculate with (e.g. the cosine set) how large the resulting field is. With E=F/q you can calculate the force.

Best regards

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